Need to escalate the following issues to Substack community. Not sure who can follow up:
https://expose-news.com/2022/06/15/pfizer-documents-800-people-never-finished-trial/
https://phmpt.org/wp-content/uploads/2022/06/125742_S1_M5_5351_c4591001-fa-interim-discontinued-patients.pdf
1) More FOIA docs show 800 withdrawals. These included r…
1) More FOIA docs show 800 withdrawals. These included reasons such as pulmonary embolism, stroke, fainting, tachycardia, paraparesis, hearing loss, and death.
2) Not sure what timeline this covers, or how to reconcile with the fact that far less than 800 exclusions were disclosed in the NEJM paper. Are these describing totally different timelines? Or are they flatly incompatible? And is the 800 estimated exclusions even accurate? Are "withdrawals" and "exclusions" talking about different things in different phases of the trial?
3) I notice people who got covid "between visits 1 and 2" were excluded. Not sure when these visits were. Does this describe a time before getting dose 1? If it is a time AFTER getting dose 1, then this would explain why the curves posted in the NEJM paper did not show negative efficacy after dose 1, whereas lots of other data does.
Need to escalate the following issues to Substack community. Not sure who can follow up:
https://expose-news.com/2022/06/15/pfizer-documents-800-people-never-finished-trial/
https://phmpt.org/wp-content/uploads/2022/06/125742_S1_M5_5351_c4591001-fa-interim-discontinued-patients.pdf
1) More FOIA docs show 800 withdrawals. These included reasons such as pulmonary embolism, stroke, fainting, tachycardia, paraparesis, hearing loss, and death.
2) Not sure what timeline this covers, or how to reconcile with the fact that far less than 800 exclusions were disclosed in the NEJM paper. Are these describing totally different timelines? Or are they flatly incompatible? And is the 800 estimated exclusions even accurate? Are "withdrawals" and "exclusions" talking about different things in different phases of the trial?
3) I notice people who got covid "between visits 1 and 2" were excluded. Not sure when these visits were. Does this describe a time before getting dose 1? If it is a time AFTER getting dose 1, then this would explain why the curves posted in the NEJM paper did not show negative efficacy after dose 1, whereas lots of other data does.
Pfizer's data in kids shows negative efficacy after dose 1. Those withdrawals suggest a massive crime. Thank you for the heads up!!!